From: sigalit mangut-leiba <smangut_at_gmail.com>
Date: Sat, 23 Feb 2008 22:48:17 +0200

Yes, that's what I thought,
thanks for the clarification!
Sigalit.

On 2/23/08, Daniel Malter <daniel_at_umd.edu> wrote:
>
> Hi Sigalit,
>
> yes, you can see this from the fact that the table says unit"1" meaning
> that
> it compares 1 to 0 and not vice versa. Everytime you regress on dummies
> the
> label will have added this to the original variable name. Say you have
> gender "male" and "female". Then "gendermale" in the label of your summary
> table would indicate that "female" is coded 0 and male 1 and that you
> therefore compare how much more or less of the dependent variable males
> "have" over females (and not vice versa). In case of a binomial regression
> it would of course be how much more or less likely they are on average
> (with
> the appropriate transformation) ...
>
>
> Cheers,
> Daniel
>
>
>
>
> -------------------------
> cuncta stricte discussurus
> -------------------------
>
> -----Ursprüngliche Nachricht-----
> Von: r-help-bounces_at_r-project.org [mailto:r-help-bounces_at_r-project.org] Im
> Auftrag von sigalit mangut-leiba
> Gesendet: Saturday, February 23, 2008 3:05 PM
> An: r-help
> Betreff: [R] clarification about glm
>
> Hello,
> I have a question about glm:
> if i have a binary covariate (unit=1,0)
> the reference group would be 0? (prediction for unit=1)
>
> example:
>
> dat1<-data.frame(y,unit,x1,x2)
>
> log_u <- glm(y~.,family=binomial,data=dat1)
>
> summary(log_u)
>
> Estimate Std. Error z value Pr(>|z|)
> (Intercept) -0.54247 0.24658 -2.200 0.0278 *
> unit1 -0.13052 0.22861 -0.571 0.5680
> aps 0.03098 0.01433 2.162 0.0306 *
> tiss0 0.02522 0.01101 2.291 0.0219 *
>
> Thank you,
>
> Sigalit.
>
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>
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