Re: [R] (no subject)

From: Ben Bolker <bolker_at_ufl.edu>
Date: Wed, 28 May 2008 14:44:49 +0000 (UTC)

Philip Twumasi-Ankrah <nana_kwadwo_derkyi <at> yahoo.com> writes:

>
> Teds reply is a bit comforting and as indicated in my post,
> I am resorting to
> using "sample" but as an academic
> issue, does randomness preclude precision?
>
> Randomness should be in the sequence of zeros and ones and
> how they are simulated at each iteration of the
> process but not in the eventual nature of the distribution.
>
> I mean if I simulated a Normal (0, 1) and got a Normal(1.5, 2)
> these would be
> very different distributions. It
> is the same with simulating a Binomial(1, p=0.15) and getting
> Binomial(1, 0.154)
>

  It's impossible to have a sampler that is (1) Binomial(1,p) on each draw and (2) independent for each draw and (3) has exactly Np successes in N draws. For example, suppose you had drawn 99 Binomial(1,p=0.15) samples and had got(ten) 14 successes so far ... your last draw would be constrained to be 1 if you wanted property #3 to hold. So I guess the answer to your question is "yes" (except in the limit of infinitely large samples).

  Ben Bolker



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