Re: [R] A regression problem using dummy variables

From: rlearner309 <>
Date: Wed, 02 Jul 2008 06:38:05 -0700 (PDT)

I think the covariance between dummy variables or between dummy variables and intercept should always be zero. meaning: no sigularity problem??

rlearner309 wrote:
> This is actually more like a Statistics problem:
> I have a dataset with two dummy variables controlling three levels. The
> problem is, one level does not have many observations compared with other
> two levels (a couple of data points compared with 1000+ points on other
> levels). When I run the regression, the result is bad. I have unbalanced
> SE and VIF. Does this kind of problem also belong to "near sigularity"
> problem? Does it make any difference if I code the level that lacks data
> (0,0) in stead of (0,1)?
> thanks a lot!

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