[Rd] calling setGeneric() twice

From: Ross Boylan <ross_at_biostat.ucsf.edu>
Date: Tue, 19 Jan 2010 10:01:00 -0800

Is it safe to call setGeneric twice, assuming some setMethod's for the target function occur in between? By "safe" I mean that all the setMethod's remain in effect, and the 2nd call is, effectively, a no-op.

?setGeneric says nothing explicit about this behavior that I can see. It does say that if there is an existing implicity generic function it will be (re?)used. I also tried ?Methods, google and the mailing list archives.

I looked at the code for setGeneric, but I'm not confident how it behaves. It doesn't seem to do a simple return of the existing value if a generic already exists, although it does have special handling for that case. The other problem with looking at the code--or running tests--is that they only show the current behavior, which might change later.

This came up because of some issues with the sequencing of code in my package. Adding duplicate setGeneric's seems like the smallest, and therefore safest, change if the duplication is not a problem.

Ross Boylan

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https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-devel Received on Tue 19 Jan 2010 - 18:04:20 GMT

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