# Re: [R] variance using lmer

From: Spencer Graves <spencer.graves_at_pdf.com>
Date: Fri 05 May 2006 - 12:14:26 EST

I'm convinced that I do NOT understand your question, but the most probable answer given my prior is "no". To get a more specific answer, please provide more detail about the problem you are trying to solve, preferably including a simple, self-contained example, e.g., the examples in the "lmer" and "lmer-class" help pages. If the CarCorr and vcov functions do not answer your questions, please explain why not, e.g. using for illustration a 'predict' example applied to lme {nlme} or glm.

I realize this does not answer your question, but I hope it gets you closer.

```	  Buena Suerte,
spencer graves

```

Per Theilgaard wrote:
> Dear R help
> I have a question on the variance of the binomial probit model.
>
> I have fitted the following model :
>

```>> lmer1<-lmer(mp ~ l + op + l*op+ us_lev + bw_lev +(1|tatu) ,

> +                method = 'Laplace',
> +                data = matings,
> +                msVerbose= True)
>> summary(lmer1)
```

> Generalized linear mixed model fit using Laplace
> Formula: mp ~ l + op + l * op + us_lev + bw_lev + (1 | tatu)
> Data: matings
> AIC BIC logLik deviance
> 1455.121 1556.387 -706.5605 1413.121
> Random effects:
> Groups Name Variance Std.Dev.
> tatu (Intercept) 0.42905 0.65502
> # of obs: 918, groups: tatu, 130
>
> Estimated scale (compare to 1) 0.8521378
>
> I suppose that the dispersion parameter has been restricted to be 1.
> Then the variance would be 1 + the variance of the random effect: 1+ 0.42905 ???
>
> Thany you very much in advance
> Per
>
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