From: Julien Laugel <roolio4news_at_gmail.com>

Date: Thu 06 Jul 2006 - 22:30:53 EST

works well

**BUT :
**

apply(df,1,myfun3)

yields :

R-help@stat.math.ethz.ch mailing list

https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help PLEASE do read the posting guide! http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html Received on Thu Jul 06 22:35:18 2006

Date: Thu 06 Jul 2006 - 22:30:53 EST

apply(df,1,myfun) ==> Does not work (I get "character(0)" )

Though : myfun(df[1,]) works,

and myfun(df) works as well.

myfun3 = function(x) timeSeries(rep(x$f1,3),timerange)

2001-04-11 02:00:00 1 2001-04-18 02:00:00 1 2001-04-25 02:00:00 1

works well

apply(df,1,myfun3)

yields :

So as a result I'm verry annoyed, and I don't see the logic behind. How can I do to make a apply-like function on the latter function? (myfun3)

Many thanks in advance

Regards,

Roolio

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https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help PLEASE do read the posting guide! http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html Received on Thu Jul 06 22:35:18 2006

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